Mathematics / Mathematik / Matemática
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Winfried Weber Group moderatorThe company name is only visible to registered members.Mersenne numbers
Hallo,
I have some questions to the Mersenne Numbers M(n) := 2^n-1, (n€N)
The Mersenne numbers are “important” because the greatest known prime numbers are Mersenne Numbers.
I would like to start with:
The following facts are well known:
- M(n) is a prime number, only if n is a prime.
-The controverse is wrong : M(11) = 2^11 – 1 = 2047 = 23 * 89
- if n=r*s , then M(r) and M(s) are divisors of M(n).
Regard now:
let p a prime number, p>=3, then q:= (p-1)/2 is a natural number.
So M(2)=3 and M(q) are divisors of M(p-1).
the Conjecture:
“p is a prime divisor of M(p-1).”
The conjecture is true for p=3, 5, 7, 11, … , 47. (I did not yet try further numbers.)
Problem:
If we factorize M(p-1) = M(q) * z with a natural number z,
then “sometimes” p is a prime divisor of M(q), sometimes p is a divisor of z. (at least for 3=<p=<47)
Examples:
p=17, q=8
M(16) = 3*5*17*257
M(8)= 3*5*17, so p=17 prime divisor of M(q)
p=19, q=9
M(18) = 3*3*3*19*511
M(9)= 511, so p=19 is prime divisor of z=3*3*3*19
If the conjecture is true:
What is the condition for p to be a prime divisor of M(q)?
If the conjecture is not true:
(smallest) counterexample?
Best regards,
Winfried
- 19 Apr 2007, 11:37 am
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Winfried Weber Group moderatorThe company name is only visible to registered members.Re^2: Mersenne numbers
Christian Niemetz schrieb:
Hi Winfried,
Regarding your conjecture, that “p is a prime divisor of M(p-1)” I can tell you that this is true for all p with p prime.
It is a direct conclusion from the so-called "little FERMAT":
Hello Christian,
you are right, that was quite easy (Why I didn't see that?).
We have for p€ P:={ p€ N, p prime, p>=3} , q:= (p-1)/2
M(p-1) = (2^q-1) * (2^q+1) = M(q) * [M(q)+2]
Define
P(1) : = { p€ P, p is divisor of M(q)}
P(2) : = { p€ P, p is divisor of M(q)+2}
P(1)={7, 17, 23, 31, 41, ...}
P(2)={3, 5 , 11, 13, 19, 29, 37, ...}
P(1) and P(2) have no commen elements, P(1) and P(2) are together P ("little Fermat").
QUESTION:
Is it possible to discribe P(1) and P(2) in an easier way?
CONJECTURE:
p= 1 mod 8 or p = 7 mod 8 => p € P(1)
p= 3 mod 8 or p = 5 mod 8 => p € P(2)
LG,
Winfried
- 20 Apr 2007, 10:39 am
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Dr. Andreas EckerThe company name is only visible to registered members.Re^4: Mersenne numbers
Hi,
I agree with Christian.
My argumentation would be as follows:
Using the law of quadratic reciprocity (see
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quadratic_reciprocity or
http://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quadratisches_Reziprozit%C3%A4t...) we know that 2 is a square in F_p (the field with p elements), iff p is congruent to 1 or 7 modulo 8.
Every element in F_p - {0} is a solution of the equation
x^(p-1) - 1 = 0
If 2 is a square in F_p, then there is y in F_p, so that y^2=2.
Then 2^q = y^(2q) = y^(p-1) = 1.
On the other hand, if 2^q=1, then 2 has to be a square, as the multiplicative group of a finite field is cyclic.
Regards,
Andreas
- 23 Apr 2007, 8:20 pm
